А король-то голый

Author: Штирлиц [299 views] 2013-10-09 13:02:20
In response to: По поводу резолюции Штирлица. Она таки была. Здесь ответы. Самое смешное, что Штирлиц протестует против свободы слова :) by неталекс, 2013-10-09 10:33:26

I have no specific knowledge of the history of that particular resolution. Reading over it, the wording does seem somewhat inconsistent with the rights of US citizens, described in this case by the first amendment to the constitution.

In the USA we have laws against advocating the violent overthrow of the government, and against general incitement to violence. But as long as they stay away from that line, all groups (even those that most of us find morally repugnant like neo-Nazis and the KKK) have a right to exist, proselytize, and peacefully assemble just like anyone else.

We are much more afraid of giving the government the power to decide who can or can't have free speech and assembly rights than we are about a few idiots who like to wear black and goosestep around in their free time.

A lot of the rest of the world is run by governments that do not recognize these rights, deciding who can or can't speak or assemble, judging what may or may not be said, so it may not seem like a big deal to them.

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edited Jun 19 '12 at 3:47

Joe
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answered Jun 18 '12 at 17:46

T.E.D.♦
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How ban on general incitement of violence is constitutional then? //BTW, I hardly can imagine government deciding who committed a criminal offense - it is usually done by a court. – Anixx Jun 18 '12 at 18:34

@Anixx - There has to be a limit even to "free speech" somewhere. For instance, I can't get together with 500 of my closest friends and yell "Get him!" when a guy with differing skin pigment walks by. That's inciting a riot. I also can't set up a high-powered amplifier in my yard and regale my neighbors with my views on politics (or the new guitar licks I just picked up) at 3AM. I can't falsely yell "fire!" in a crowded theater. So there are in fact limits to "free speech". However, the limits general revolve around public safety and/or nuisances, and often can't involve prior restraint. – T.E.D.♦ Jun 18 '12 at 19:33
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@Anixx, in American terminology, the courts are part of the government. – Joe Jun 18 '12 at 19:35
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Nicely put. we are much more afraid of giving the Government the power to decide who can or can't have Free Speech and Assembly rights than we are about a few idiots who like to wear black and goosestep around in their free time. lol – American Luke Jun 19 '12 at 0:05
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@Anixx, in your terminology (I'm guessing British?) what do you call the combination of Congress, the courts, the President, and the various departments? In the US we call this the government, but I understand the term has a more restricted meaning elsewhere. – Joe Jun 19 '12 at 3:20

http://history.stackexchange.com/questions/2401/why-did-the-us-britain-france-denmark-and-sweden-vote-against-the-un-resoluti

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